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Pedants' corner

Right my clever little Pedants, can you please sort out this argument betweeen DP and I?

44 replies

memoo · 22/05/2009 18:38

DP always says vica versa

Whereas I believe the correct term to be vice versa

Am i wrong?

OP posts:
FairLadyRantALot · 22/05/2009 19:24

hehe...just heard it pronounced in italian and it is vit-she where-saa...or some such thing...also other sites seem to use vice (one sylla.) as well as vi-cer

hatwoman · 22/05/2009 19:24

or vee-kay? (trying to remember Latin classess...but fairly sure it wouldn't be an S sound)

[also not sure about the first syllable, vee? (rhyming with bee) or vye (rhyming with why)?

FairLadyRantALot · 22/05/2009 19:25

indeed hatwoman ...

oh and lol at the Chester Draws/Chest of Draws/ Chest of Drawers thing...

FairLadyRantALot · 22/05/2009 19:33

oh and in proper latin it shold actually be something like Vickey versa....so...Vi-cer isn't really any "more correct" then Vice (as in Ice with a V infront), lol

NorkilyChallenged · 22/05/2009 19:36

latin pronunciation - nobody really knows but standard taught latin pronunciation in the english-speaking world would be "wee-kay wer-sa" so not really accurately reflected in our pronunciation of vice versa.

i always say vice (like the opposite of virtue) versa but can check dictionary when dd1 in bed (am 1-handed typing while watching grandpa in my pocket atm)

FairLadyRantALot · 22/05/2009 19:39

it's funny really that you can have latin and greek words that than are pronounced differently in different parts of the world....have noticed this with many medical terms...which I find somewhat confusing...having trained as a nurse in Germany using german-latin/greek pronounciation and now doing Occupational Therapy and learning the english-greek/latin pronounciation....sigh...surely if we make the effort to use terms from anohter language than we should blardy well be pronouncing them the original way,iykwim

caramelwaffle · 22/05/2009 19:43

AAAarrrgghhh - babybill. You are so correct.

NorkilyChallenged · 22/05/2009 19:45

That's true FairLady (I studied Latin & Greek in England and France and my "hilarious" English-accented Latin was the cause of uproar the first few weeks ).

The trouble is that they don't really know how Latin was pronounced originally. The best theories would suggest that it was something similar to Romanian in modern Romance languages but even then..... Also Latin was spoken over a huge area over a large period of time. If you think about how pronunciation of English would have changed since Shakespeare's day to what it is now in the various parts of the UK but also in the US, Australia, the West Indies, wherever. No wonder they're not sure about Latin

midnightexpress · 22/05/2009 19:52

My dictionary says it should be 'vice-i versa' (like 'icy' with a v at the beginning (which is news to me, I've always pronounced it 'vice').

As for DP and me and DP and I, I is a subject pronoun. So if 'I' is the subject of the verb(if 'I' does the verb) then it is correct:

'DP and I are going to the pub.'

If the speaker is not the subject, then use 'me':

DP had an argument with me and the pedants.

midnightexpress · 22/05/2009 19:54

Oh, and if you're really interested, 'vice' comes from 'vicis' meaning 'change' and 'vertere' meaning 'turn', so how 'vice' would be pronounced in yer actual Latin is irrelevant.

NorkilyChallenged · 22/05/2009 20:01

What do you mean Midnight?

Well, obviously you're right, it is irrelevant how ancient Romans may have pronounced this phrase as we don't retain or attempt to retain original pronunciation in every Latin word or phrase.

However, "vice versa" is exactly how they would have written the phrase with the exact same meaning as what we mean when we say "vice versa". "vice" is the ablative form of the noun "vicis". If that makes sense. Which it possibly doesn't.

FairLadyRantALot · 22/05/2009 20:18

oh dear norkily at your experience in france....

but you are right....language has changed so much over the years, so, it truely is not surprising people don't quite know much about latins true pronouciation....

memoo · 22/05/2009 20:46

so in a nutshell, I'm right not DP?

OP posts:
FairLadyRantALot · 22/05/2009 20:48

lol...spelling wise definitely, lol

Grammaticus · 23/05/2009 20:43

Dp had an argument with the pedants and me, surely?

ravenAK · 23/05/2009 20:51

Wee-kay wer-sa would be conventional if we're treating it as an ablative absolute.

OTOH that probably comes under 'Wankers' Latin' (c. Kingsley Amis I believe), which leaves us which vice-uh versa as probably the most natural Anglicized pronunciation...

stuffitlllama · 23/05/2009 21:00

shouldn't it be wicer wersa?

stuffitlllama · 23/05/2009 21:02

yes weekay wersa raven I have now read your post

i was half way there

i say vice versa though

gerontius · 23/05/2009 21:29

I've always gone with pronouncing "vice" as one syllable.

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