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Pedants' corner

Right my clever little Pedants, can you please sort out this argument betweeen DP and I?

44 replies

memoo · 22/05/2009 18:38

DP always says vica versa

Whereas I believe the correct term to be vice versa

Am i wrong?

OP posts:
Lulumama · 22/05/2009 18:39

it is vice, but pronounced vicer

plusonemore · 22/05/2009 18:40

vice versa

Grammaticus · 22/05/2009 18:40

Never mind that - your title should say DP and ME !!!

memoo · 22/05/2009 18:41

I knew someone would pull me up on my grammer or something

OP posts:
FordPrefect · 22/05/2009 18:41

I was just thinking that. And then I wasn't 100% sure....

BlueCowWondersAgainAndAgain · 22/05/2009 18:41

but it's between DP and ME!

as Lulumama says about pronunciation - vic-er

BlueCowWondersAgainAndAgain · 22/05/2009 18:41

but it's between DP and ME!

as Lulumama says about pronunciation - vic-er

BlueCowWondersAgainAndAgain · 22/05/2009 18:41

OOPs

TheBreastmilksOnMe · 22/05/2009 18:44

Why is it Dp and Me and not I?

bronze · 22/05/2009 18:46

I've picked that one up off mns. The rule being if you can take the other person out of the sentence and it still make sense its correct

(one handed typing)

memoo · 22/05/2009 18:47

See, now I am even more confused than when I first posted. How do you no when it is I or me?

OP posts:
bloss · 22/05/2009 18:47

Message withdrawn

bronze · 22/05/2009 18:47

Except in this case it still doesnt make sense

memoo · 22/05/2009 18:49
OP posts:
FairLadyRantALot · 22/05/2009 18:52

so, why is vice pronounced vi-cer...that doesn't make sense....

and the me/I think....hm...you lot confued me now, and I wasn't even confused about that before I read this thread, lol

FordPrefect · 22/05/2009 18:53

It's cos it is forrin'

MannyMoeAndJack · 22/05/2009 18:55

The way I remember it is as follows...if the word, 'I' can stand alone, then it is correct to say, 'dh and I', otherwise it would be, 'dh and me'.

So, you wouldn't say, 'argument between I' hence you know that it is correct to say, 'argument between dh and me' !

AnybodyHomeMcFly · 22/05/2009 18:57

Imagine you were saying "can you sort out this argument for me". You wouldn't say "for I", so when you add dh you still say "me" - same principle applies to your thread title

RustyBear · 22/05/2009 19:04

Actually I've always spelled it vice but pronounced it 'vicey'. But that may have been a pronunciation exclusive to our family; I was surprisingly old before I discovered that nobody else called insects 'wiggers'

caramelwaffle · 22/05/2009 19:07

Vice versa.

He may be convinced it is vica due to pronounciation over time.

A friend has an ex-wife who was utterly adament that she was going to buy "Chester draws" recently. "chest of draws, surely?" said he. "Nah. Chester draws. Chester draws. Like that place up norf"

She has always pronounced them "chesta draws" not chest of draws.

vice versa

vica versa

babybillandsplodge · 22/05/2009 19:12

That would be chest of drawers not draws!

hatwoman · 22/05/2009 19:12

on the OP (rather than the obiter comments on her thread title...come come ladies) - I'm not sure which is correct but, if you think about it, it's virtually impossible to (really) say vice versa (as opposed to vica versa) unless you make a very artificial stop and intake of breath after vice. I wager that even if in your mind you're saying vice versa and dp is saying vica versa there's a hair-breadth between them that a listener would struggle to detect.

bloss · 22/05/2009 19:17

Message withdrawn

FairLadyRantALot · 22/05/2009 19:18

is vice versa latin? Just trying to work it out, and if it is is vi-cer the latin pronounciation, because I always thought that Latin is kind of a phonetic language...
but I don't know anything about these things, of course, lol...saying that, than , I suppose, it should be vi-ze versa....lol...

hatwoman · 22/05/2009 19:19

if you;re going to pronounce it in latin wouldn't it be vee-chay?