Apostrophe question

[Butterbur]

Is it "A good nights sleep",

or "A good night's sleep".

If it's the first, why?

A good night's sleep.

The sleep belongs to the night.

I am now looking at it and starting to doubt myself of course :)

I think that possibly in years to come that apostophes will start to be omitted more (ie Harrods used to be Harrod's)

Yes A good night's sleep as with Lawrie

Nope, it is the second one. For the reasons given by the previous respondent. Dropping apostrophes is a stylistic matter, since Mr Harrod no longer owns the store.

The second is correct, as the sleep 'belongs' to a (single) night.

Yes, it's a good night's sleep! But Lawrie, I think you mean e.g. not i.e. :)

Phew. That seems very logical, and what I thought. DS said his English teacher had crossed it out, so I was doubting myself. i expect it was a slip of the pen.

I expect it was just another illiterate teacher!

As a teacher I normally defend my colleagues but when it comes to apostrophes, teachers are as bad as the rest of the population!

Just want to add that it is correct that there should be a possessive apostrophe here (night's) but it drives me crazy when someone incorrectly uses it with a personal pronoun (her's instead of hers). so very very wrong.

MrMan - does it annoy you when Jane Austen does it?

Does she really?

Well, I mean what you expect from someone who was home-schooled?

Yes, in some editions - apparently there were two styles in use at the time, and the one without the apostrophe eventually won.

Though whether the use of the apostrophe was her's or put in by her editor/publisher I don't know.

Being pedantic I probably should have said "did she really?" as I doubt she does now

So should I!