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Pedants' corner

apostrophe on a plural

10 replies

weepootle · 08/11/2010 18:16

Would it be "the wives of the fallen soldiers" or "the wives' of the fallen soldiers"?

At first look I can't see why it needs an apostrophe but I'm having a block.

OP posts:
thelunar66 · 08/11/2010 18:17

the wives of the fallen soldiers. No apostrophe.

thelunar66 · 08/11/2010 18:18

I think.

Now ive looked at it again, you've got me thinking too..... Hmm

PacificDogwood · 08/11/2010 18:19

Does it refer to the fallen soldiers wives (plural, no apostrophe) or something that belongs to the wives ie 'the wives' tears' IYKWIM - a bit clumsy, but the only thing I could come up with...

NoahAndTheWhale · 08/11/2010 18:19

No apostrophe needed. If you wanted a sentence that meant the same but with an apostrophe it would be

The fallen soldiers' wives

(assuming the wives belonged to several soldiers)

PacificDogwood · 08/11/2010 18:20

So in the context you probably mean, NO apostrophe

JeelyPiece · 08/11/2010 18:21

No apostrophe. It's not a possessive and there are no letters missing.

If you were writing 'the fallen soldiers's wives' or 'the fallen soldiers' wives' clothes' then yes as it's possessive.

LoopyLoops · 08/11/2010 18:21

No apostrophe.

JeelyPiece · 08/11/2010 18:21

Ooh I am a slow typist!

JeelyPiece · 08/11/2010 18:22

Shit a typo. I mean 'the fallen soldiers' wives' not 'the fallen soldiers's wives'!

weepootle · 08/11/2010 18:25

Thanks ladies, I should trust my first instinct!

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