I understand that it means one parent one language. This sounds like a 50:50 division between the languages that the child will be exposed to at home. BUT what happens when the parents speak together? Unless they are both completely fluent in each others' languages then one language will dominate, so the division becomes probably 80:20 in our case. Or do the parents speak a two-language conversation - surely very unnatural and not a model to copy?
At the moment I am english and english-speaking in sweden and my husband is swedish. We speak together in english and then he speaks to her in swedish, but only when I am not there, so that english is the family language. While we are in sweden I'm sure we will muddle through to bilingualism. But I am concerned that when we moved back to an english-speaking country the swedish will be lost as the family language is english (despite DH's attempts in swedish - dare I say it a fairly uncool language). I'm not sure that after 6 years of falling in love, ups and downs (huge arguments!) and roundabouts me and husband can change our language of communication.
Questions:
How do you really do OPOL?
Has anyone's DC kept the 'other' language after moving countries?
Has anyone managed to change the language in which they speak to their partner because of language concerns for the child?
PS Am really rambling now, but at 10 months DD has 'said' nej (a negative noise that really sounds like no in swedish when she doesn't want to do somehing) and constantly Da-da-da, which irritatingly sounds like dad in english. Am I imagining things?