Hi all
I'm after a bit of advice
My ex and I split up over 12 years ago and I resided in the family home with our two girls we went married but we owned the property together
I continued to pay the mortgage and a secured loan that we had on the property single handed with no help from my ex
I have no remarried and my ex wants to come off the mortgage which is fair enough so my husband is going to buy the house
My ex has insisted he is entitled to 50%of the profit from the house sale and I feel that surely legally he isn't entitled to that much having no contributed to the payments for over 12 years and only did for app 3 years max
Could someone please shed some light through either experience or legal knowledge as to what he is entitled too
Many thanks