Pedants! "-ize" vs. "-ise" - help me settle this

[spacedonkey]

Someone on my OU course claims to have been criticised by their tutor for using the word "racialized" instead of "racialised". Now I know some people think that the "-ize" ending is an Americanism, but I thought this was incorrect, and it is actually the correct form from the Greek in cases where it means "turned into" or "having the characteristic of".

I realise that Americans prefer "ize" and British prefer "ise", and the two can be considered interchangeable (I can't be bothered to check up on whether a word should have the Greek ending every time anyway!)

I think the tutor was wrong. Any thoughts?

Message withdrawn

thanks pruni

(it is a word, in sociology anyway!)

you are supposed to use Oxford spellings, so 'ise' it is. Though, either should be correct. racialised is a sociological term isn't it? I think I came across it in dd100.

Message withdrawn

it's actually spelled with a "z" in the course text book and, as far as I can tell, is the correct spelling (if we're being really pedantic about it)