X and I are divorcing. I paid for most of our house (approx 75% of purchase price) but then my income dropped because of time out to have DCs (I did a lot of fixed term contract stuff so got no maternity pay ... or other benefits ) after DCs born (have now got a job with that sort of stuff again, finally ). X has agreed that I should keep the house (DCs home, amount I invested in it originally), plus he has just inherited his parents house so he has somewhere to live. We have been told that while he can claim a share of the sale of the house DCs and I occupy, I could also claim a similar share of his new place. The values are roughly the same. I don't want his ££ really other than maintenance for DCs and he doesn't want me to have to sell the marital home because of the upset for DCs who are little. So we have agreed to call it quits. How does it work in terms of actually signing the house over to me? I am already paying the mortgage and have done since he left last winter. Do we need to change the deeds etc? We are going through the mediation process soon but I wanted to work out what needed to be done in advance. TIA