Hi all
I've been hearing (via cold calls) that if you have a credit card that you've had since before 2007 the chances are the contract won't be legally binding and so you don't have to pay the balance.
Now, please don't misunderstand me, I don't have a credit card balance (anymore!), but my DH is in dispute with MBNA because they upped his interest rate to approx 28% without warning - despite his excellent credit rating. So he paid the card off and has written to complain and told them he has left approx £300 on the card as this is the disputed amount and that he won't be paying it until the Ombudsman has dealt with his complaint. They are now threatening his credit rating etc and we wondered if this was another angle to come at them from.
Has anybody got any info on this?
Thanks