Hi All
Another question to settle my mind a little on an ongoing issue and help support and advise my long suffering partner..
Occupational rent.
Is anybody in receipt of it, or paying it?
As I understand it if you own a property with somebody but either you or they are unable to live there, or actively prevented from living there, the person unable to have use and/or access to their property can be paid a proportional rent based on the market rentable value and their share of ownership.
This also is reliant on them keeping up their end of things in terms of any repayments.
These payments can sometimes be offset against this rent, so the person with the occupational benefit of living there and not having to pay alternative rent or mortgage to live somewhere else covers more or all of the bills along with the upkeep to keep the property in good order.
My belief if this also can be backdated.
What I am unsure of is how common this is, can anybody shed any light on their experiences of it please?
The circumstance here is my partner and her ex. She left him, they own a property 50/50. He hasn't paid her a penny for the pleasure of living there in the very nice house for the last 2.5 years, she has of course had to be paying to live elsewhere.
There are various other bones of contention in play, I would like to have an idea of how realistic some consideration is of this issue when it comes to a final settlement.
They are not / were not married.
Thanks again for the thoughts, advice and experience shared.