Ive name changed for this thread as I am going behind a relative's back to find this out as I am concerned they have received incorrect legal advice.
The situation is that there was a married couple. Both had mirror wills, leaving the house and any assets first to each other, and then to their adult children. The total of the house/ assets was under £1 million.
We were therefore under the impression that no inheritance tax was due.
When the husband of the couple died, a relative dealt with everything, did all the paperwork related to the will ect. And they believed no inheritance tax was due.
Now the wife has died, the same relative is dealing with it all. They have done most of the paperwork but have found a solicitor who for a very small fee is helping them with the final bits. This is vague because this is how it has been explained to us by other members of the family who don't really understand, and it isn't really my place to ask questions or challenge.
The issue is that this solicitor has told the relative that because of the way the husbands will was written, they will now have to pay inheritance tax as the will stated that when he died, the house would go to his wife who would live in it until death, and then pass on to the adult DC. I have done some digging and found some wording that looks like this: “I bequeath my residence … to my surviving spouse … for as long as they shall live. Upon their death, the residence shall pass to my children…”
From my basic research, the surviving children should still benefit from both parents allowance and so no inheritance tax should still be due.
The solicitor has told the relative that because technically the husband left the house to the children and not the wife, only his share of the inheritance tax allowance stands, which is £500,000 (or possibly only £325,000).
I just wondered if anyone had had any experience of this?