Wondering if anyone can check a calculation for me please, especially if you have knowledge/experience of Benefits in Kind.
If accommodation is provided by an employer in a house worth about £350,000 (in today’s prices, the employer bought it for far less many many years ago) the calculation going by the HMRC website is:
Annual value = 1985 Rateable Value divided by 2.7.
1975 Rateable value is 425, so the annual value = £157.41.
Then you add an extra charge if the property is worth over £75,000, so you minus £75,000 then multiply that amount by 2.25% interest rate and finally add on the annual value.
£350,000 - 75,000 = 275,000.
275,000 x 2.25% = 6,187.50
6,187.50 + 157.41 = 6,344.91.
The employer couldn’t find the rateable value so went for an inflated market rent instead, and then with the additional charge added on, the benefit is being calculated by them at around £30,000.
There is obviously a massive difference between the two amounts, so can anyone help with which is correct? Thanks.