I'm embarrassed that I don't know the answer to this as I feel a normal adult should know so please be kind.
DH received a letter from HMRC today stating that his tax code is changing from M to L (and owes tax back), however he is denying that he changed it. Why would the tax office change someone's code without the person asking them. And can DH be the only one to change this or can his work payroll do it?
It was changed to M several years ago as we transferred some of my tax allowance to him (as per Martin Lewis website) and we've had no letters questioning it since then.
I know we are having marital problems so i am unsure if he did actually do it in anticipation of divorce papers...