I have been reading that transfer of assets between spouses is exempt from CGT but am confused as surely it's an easy way to evade/avoid CGT? So I think I am misunderstanding something.
So for example if I bought some shares for £1 five years ago and they are now worth £101,000, I have made a gain of £100,000 and will get a hefty CGT bill if I sell.
But if I gift them to my spouse and he sells straightaway, he won't pay any CGT if the share price remains the same between him receiving them and selling them. So the government makes no CGT money from the gain in the shares' value.
So what is the catch? I suppose the £101k share sale proceeds would be subject to income tax or some other tax at my husband's rate?
(These are just example figures, sadly I am not actually in this position, just trying to understand how it all works!)
Thanks very much for any light that anyone can shed. I have googled lots and just become more and more confused!