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Original poster

PLEASE advice

1 reply

Anita29 · 02/09/2022 10:47

If a wife signs an occupier's consent form to allow her husband to get a loan, will the signing of the form be deemed to be a disposition under section 37 of the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973?

OP posts:
Seemslikeaniceday · 02/09/2022 20:46

The wife needs to see a solicitor.

It sounds like the loan is secured against the house and so if the wife signs she can be evicted by the loan company if the loan is defaulted on.

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