legally speaking...?

[sixlostmonkeys]

anyone know if...

x gives y a sum of money to pay some of y's bills, can x ever be entitled to the money back?

probably the vaguest question ever but it's the only way I dare word it.

if they give it, as a gift or whatever , then no, but a loan , then yes

would depend on any wording, contract etc

I would have said they could unless it was written down as otherwise or x and y are married.

also would depend if any of the money given back previously maybe...

thanks

there was an agreement/understanding - but not sure if it was in writng

was there an understanding it was a loan and was any payment made?

you don;t have to explain if you cannot !

not as clear cut.

trying to word carefully here.

the understanding was that the amount should be given back if 'A' happened.

(going to run out of alphabet soon!)

So it is a conditional gift?

or conditional loan , you can look at it either way !

yes, it's conditional - but I don't think there was anything legally in writing

An agreement (contract) doesn't have to be in writing, though that would help as evidence!

Most definitely would have to have discussed return of money beforehand...i would have thought?

Any witnesses? To back up your claim?

Must just add that if it is a gift it isn't probably a contract. The terms of the gift don't have to be in writing provided both parties understood what the terms were - i.e. X gives the money to Y to pay bills but that Y should repay money to X if A occurs.

Yes, as LM says.
In the Times today I think there was query about someone who gave money as her sister said the daughters were hard up. Next month she discovers they're off to Tenerife on holiday with the children! But there it was an unconditional gift. No question of it coming back. But if I said here is some money to pay your gas bill and you spend it on a dress then do we think it could be got back? It was given on one basis only.