Im guessing i already know the answer to this - but my dad has recently left a job (where he is now taking employer to tribunal as he was in his mind 'forced to resign'-i wont go into it in too much detail!)
but when he was working there, there was a policy that they had pay rise every january - but this year they couldn't agree on an amount and it took ages to agree with the unions what the pay rise will be. So my dad left about 1 month ago and they have now all had their payrise (backdated til January) - should my dad be entitled to the money for the time he worked there???
Any advice appreciated - but i know its a bit specialised area Thank you x