I am divorcing and my Ex and I have been asked by a judge to provide details of our mortgage capacities.
We own two properties in joint names: a house in the UK and a flat overseas.
My Ex also bought her Father’s house some years ago - she owns this outright. Initially she didn’t want to declare this in the disclosure.
She is saying that her Father’s house is not a relevant asset in the divorce and won’t help with her mortgage capacity for another property in the UK.
Is this true?
To clarify:
I have no interest in a share of her Father’s house and I do NOT think it should be sold due to our divorce.
I am asking for the flat and the house that we own together to both be sold so that we can both purchase new properties in the UK.