I can’t seem to find an answer for this online, hopefully someone with knowledge of mortgages will be able to clarify...
My husband and I have both previously owned homes in the past (separately, before we were together) - Mine was through inheritance and he bought a small apartment when he was in his early 20’s. My husband subsequently sold his apartment, and through unfortunate circumstances, I also had to sell the place which I had inherited. Both of these properties were sold over 10 yrs ago and we have been renting ever since.
So, my question is... would we qualify for a first time buyer’s mortgage?