Hi all, any advice or similar experiences gratefully received.
We're applying for a mortgage (with Santander) and the underwriters have flagged up something on one of our bank statements that I completely forgot about.
Husbands first marriage collapsed in 2006 and his first wife walked out leaving him with around £45k-worth of consumer credit debt (essentially it was mainly credit cards and storecards that she'd taken out in his name, with her as a named card holder. Husband, daft as he was back then, just signed the agreements without question.
Anyway, three years ago having paid off the 'full' amount of debt (negotiating some lower settlements along the way), it then came to light that there was a further amount owing to Barclaycard of almost £9k. It took over nine months for Barclaycard to prove the debt and supply copies of the original statements. I have no idea why this debt wasn't 'discovered' earlier except to say that my husband is crap with paperwork and financial administration and I look after all of our money.
Anyway, the Barclaycard debt, having been purchased by a collection company, turns up three years ago and after Barclaycard proving the money was definitely owed, husband starts paying it back at a nominal amount each month, with the intention to settle it 'at some point'.
We then apply for our mortgage, via a financial advisor, and Santander flag up this £20 a month and want to know what it's for. The debt doesn't appear on husband's credit file and I'd basically forgotten all about it.
The financial advisor asked me to give as much info as possible on the debt and how it came about, which I did, and the response has now gone back to the underwriters for their consideration.
We're taking out a relatively small 95% mortgage which is around £150k less of what we could, technically, borrow based on our earnings.
My question - and apologies for being long-winded, but I think the previous information is pertinent - is what are the chances Santander will turn down our application on the basis on this debt? They previously gave us a agreement in principle.
Also - if a debt isn't recorded on any credit files, is it still deemed as 'adverse credit' by lenders?
Anyone got any similar experience or industry experience on this?