Friend of mine has her niece who is a lone working for her part time in her shop 16 hours a week , the niece has 2 boys. She gets working tax credits child tax credits and housing benefit for her current private rental which she rents privately through a letting agent . Shes a lone parent with 2 boys .The niece she asked her aunt to buy a property for her to to rent back from her aunt, she has to railroaded her into things in the past but only small things eg lending her money for a car holiday buying a TV for her birthday etc , which she has always paid back any money she's borrowed . I don't think her paying the rent would be an issue I do think she would pay the rent every month But her aunt never says no, it's her niece and it's her only family she has, Her niece has asked her to buy a house which would be bigger than she has now for her to rent back off the aunt. I know it's an investment for my friend and she's got a ready made tennant in her niece and her rent will be paid partly paid by the local authority, because she's getting benefits. The niece says it's legal as long as she is paying the correct rate of rent for the property and she doesn't give to her cheaper , the rental income will cover the mortgage repayments . They will have a commercial tenancy legally drawn up . But this is just me wondering is this enteritly legal .She tends to talk her aunt into most things and sometimes I think she prays on her good nature. But property buying is a huge step for anyone.I know she's doing it on a buy to let mortgage and it all seems above board. I just don't want her fingers burnt later on if it goes wrong, I don't think for one minute her niece will not pay the rent so that not an issue as she's always paid her back in the past . When it's been a loan for something smaller a car etc , but it's property, I just think she needs to look further into it but her niece keeps saying it's perfectly legal. I know it's got nothing to do with me but is it' all legal. As I have heard of a contrived tenancy but the law seems very vague . But the best part will be the local authority will be paying partly for a property which will be hers one day anyway. Which then makes me doubt is this correct anyone know anything about this please or point her in the right direction before it goes any further, thanks