Hoping for a bit of practical advice. My DF is buying his first property, and is buying it outright.
What I'm unsure of is how he actually pays for this- can it be done by bank transfer or does it need to be paid by a bankers draft? We've been a bit waylaid by proving the cash is his that the date of transfer is now imminent. We are in Scotland if this makes any difference?
Thanks in advance!