DH’s ex partner wants to buy him out of their jointly owned property but can’t afford to give him his full share of the equity. He might be able to accept the lower amount but wants to understand the CGT position. Am I right in thinking that the CGT is based on the current property value rather than the amount she actually gives him?
For example- house was bought for £100k and is now worth £200k so his half of the profit is £50k. Even if she only gives him £40k to buy him out his CG liability will be based on the £50k profit rather than the £40k buy out?