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Disaplineries - Straight to Written?

8 replies

jellyjelly · 11/06/2007 22:46

Have you received a text from bf saying he has been handed a letter for a disaplinery for tomorrow because of absence and attendence.

He has had 2 weeks off due to a bad back with a doctors note.

Can they do this? I thought they had to warn him first before a written or could the letter be inviting him to a verbal warning.

I thought it had to be
verbal
1st written
maybe 2nd written
then
dismissal.

Is it better for him if they have given a written one to start as it is unlegal?

thanks

OP posts:
jellyjelly · 11/06/2007 22:46

not sure how long he has worked there but is not in a probabitionary period

OP posts:
hana · 11/06/2007 22:47

the letter sounds like a request to attend a displinary meeting where the outcome might be a formal caution sort of thing

NurseyJo · 11/06/2007 22:50

This reply has been deleted

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jellyjelly · 11/06/2007 22:58

FROM WHAT HE HAS WRITTEN IT SOUNDS formal not justa chat.

any advice for him?

OP posts:
jellyjelly · 11/06/2007 22:59

it also doesnt sound like a back to work meeting which some companies have. He doesnt want to go back

OP posts:
NurseyJo · 11/06/2007 23:01

This reply has been deleted

Message withdrawn

RibenaBerry · 11/06/2007 23:03

There is no set order, I'm afraid. If a company thinks an offence serious, they don't have to start with a verbal warning.

BUT

Since he was genuinely ill, the best thing he can do is go to the meeting and explain. If he has a trade union, speak to them too

AND

The can't normally move straight to dismissal for a first offence unless it's really serious (e.g. theft, fraud, etc).

jellyjelly · 11/06/2007 23:14

thanks ribena that sounds abit better. havent seen the letter but he says its for absnece and he worked overtime tonight.

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