Calling any legal eagles or flat owners. Currently trying to sell a flat but the terms of the lease state that consent to let is required from the freeholder and such consent can be revoked at any time. The clause was recently added as we'd had some really bad renters. Our buyers conveyancer is refusing to accept this as they say her lender won't accept such terms on a buy to let mortgage and wants lease variation. I am considering what to do as this has been going on for a long time now and was just wondering if this is common wording on leases, buying trying it on, or could it affect the future saleability of the flat e.g. less favourable for renting.We have a number of flats in the block currently being rented but the terms were recently changed. Any advice appreciated.