I still own a property with my ex. I first lived in the house for two years after we split up; we then rented it out for a couple of years, until my ex moved back in about 4 years ago. The mortgage is interest only but thanks to price increase, we have a little bit of capital on the property.
A few months ago, my ex decided that he wanted to sell the house. We have both re-married, and they want to move. Not ideal as we were in negative equity not that long ago, but I respect his wishes and agreed to it.
In the meantime, I decided to finally get my Will done, and was shocked to find out that we are joint tenants as opposed to tenants in common. This was over two months ago, and I have sent all the details plus completed papers to my ex twice.
My question is: why is dragging his heels to get this sorted? The house is not showing signs of selling any time soon (he's chosen a rubbish but cheap estate agent) and seeing that he's got his wife to think about, you'd have thought that he would be keen to protect her interests. Is it something to do with the potential proceeds of the sale of the house? Is he planning on disputing the amounts based on the length of time that he's lived in the house, even though he's only been paying the interest on the mortgage? I know he's a rather complacent guy but I thought I'd pose the question here...