Hi, I have a query but am ensure if I need to seek a solicitor for the answer, could anyone give me a yes or no answer?
My estranged husband is forcing the sale of our marital home, in which our 19 year old daughter still lives in. He wants half of the equity, however he owns half of his mums home (along with his sister). His mums home is owned outright, and he is currently living with his mum in that home.
The question is, is he still entitled to force the sale of the marital home if he technically owns half of another property?
Any insight or answers would be greatly appreciated! 