...hmm, not sure I explained that correctly in the title. To cut a long story short
I am engaged to my GF
I moved from rented flat into her house (on which she has a mortgage) last year (I have never owned my own property)
We both work
As soon as I get paid every month I transfer money to her account towards bills (basically anything that is needed, mortgage, utilities etc)
It is accepted that I also probably spend more money on buying the household food
BUT, all in all I think we are pretty equal in what we spend on living overheads and both have our own accounts for spending what we have left over (never any issues on that).
My mum died and I recently inherited 50K. Have barely touched it.
I think that once we are married I should use a considerable amount of the 50K to pay some of the outstanding mortgage and my name be added to the deeds of the property so in effect I would half own it.
Figures are - house was about 120K, she paid cash deposit of about 40K (I think) and paid the mortgage herself until I moved in (about a year).
There is currently a number of years left on the mortgage - literally we would have to work until about 70!
By paying an amount of the mortgage off, it would mean we could possibly be mortgage free a good decade earlier (if not more).
If the mortgage was not take out in my name and is not on it anywhere, can my name be added to the deeds to show joint owership?
Thanks (sorry for the waffle).