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Potential divorce - money advice

3 replies

BlueBee · 26/06/2015 10:16

im asking for my lovely friend as I don't know the answer. I've suggested to go to citizens advice but she's just putting her head in the sand at the moment.
So basically:

  • Been together for 10 years
  • Married for 1
  • owned the mortgaged house for 2 years
  • the mortgage is all in husbands name
  • house deeds in husbands name
  • he paid the deposit circa 80k
  • she's paid half the mortgage each month and half of DIY costs, furniture etc

They are possibly heading for divorce.

So does being married mean she has any claim on the house (just a percentage she's not daft) or does the lack of being on the deeds and mortgage top trump being married?

Thanks.

OP posts:
Rockchick1984 · 27/06/2015 23:15

Marriage means that the house is a joint asset, and that overrules the fact that she's not on the mortgage.

alicemalice · 28/06/2015 08:46

It would be very unfair though if she got half of the 80k deposit.

Length of marriage is also taken into account when dividing the assets and it was a very short marriage.

She would probably get a percentage, like you mention.

BlueBee · 28/06/2015 17:31

Thank you for your answers. She wouldn't want to take anywhere near half, I think she just wants a share of what she's put in the pot and wouldn't dream of going near his deposit. If it's a joint asset then that's something in the form of protection I suppose. I hope it doesn't come to this but I just want to know she's ok.

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