im asking for my lovely friend as I don't know the answer. I've suggested to go to citizens advice but she's just putting her head in the sand at the moment.
So basically:
- Been together for 10 years
- Married for 1
- owned the mortgaged house for 2 years
- the mortgage is all in husbands name
- house deeds in husbands name
- he paid the deposit circa 80k
- she's paid half the mortgage each month and half of DIY costs, furniture etc
They are possibly heading for divorce.
So does being married mean she has any claim on the house (just a percentage she's not daft) or does the lack of being on the deeds and mortgage top trump being married?
Thanks.