I'm reasonably good at financial matters but this has me puzzled!
in the next 1-2 yrs I will be selling the house i bought (still in my name only) before I met DH. We'll also be selling the house we live in (in his name only) and will be making profit on both.
I udnerstand I need to pay CGT on the profit of the sale of my house and i think this is what happens:
cost of purchase
+
enhancements (double glazing)
Selling price
=
profit
profit
CGT allowance (about 8 or 9k?)
personal tax allowance as I'm not working
=
taxable amount
taxable amount qualifies for taper relief
taper relif
70% cos owned property for 8 years
70% of taxable amount
X
X is then taxed at 10% for the first 1,900(approx) then at 20% for the bit up to about 30k then 40% after that
is this roughly right (given that allowances change) or have I misread the incredibly long and complex instructions?