Hello, I'm hoping somebody knowledgeable about credit card billing cycles will be able to answer this!
I've paid for a holiday online with a credit card today, partly to be covered by section 75 and also so I can hopefully split the cost over two pay days. It's a capital one card with the bog standard 45 day interest free period, (I believe it's the bill period plus 14 days until due date).
I checked my old statements and the last day of each bill is today (28th of each month). So payment due date is in 14 days.
Transaction is not showing on statement yet, it usually takes a day or two. My question is, do you think the transaction will be on my imminent bill (meaning I have to pay in full within 14 days to avoid interest)? Or will it end up being on the following bill, giving me the full 45 day interest period? Thanks!