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Help legal advise job application

5 replies

Pinky1 · 12/09/2006 22:20

If you have been told 'verbally' you would have got a job if you had applied on a full time basis as apposed to part time do you have grounds for discrimination? if so under what clause. Bit deep for this time of night I know! but its the wine talking now....

OP posts:
mumblechum · 13/09/2006 11:07

Bump for you. Not my field - have you asked CAB?

hoolagirl · 13/09/2006 19:36

Im afraid unless you have a witness to this then verbal is only as good as the paper its written on, unless of course they're going to admit it !

Pinky1 · 13/09/2006 20:05

Thanks for advice, i have found that if you dont have proof no case!!

Never mind search for new job continues

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bananaloaf · 13/09/2006 20:09

i disagree, its discrimination, although you may not get anywhere whoever told you that is in the wrong esp if they were on the interview panel. if the company have a a flexible working system and you were the best candiate then you were discriminated against.

Pinky1 · 16/09/2006 22:15

Agree with you but if its not in black and white cannot be proven.. Great eh! as if they would give it you in writing anyway.

Thanks for support though

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