I will try to make this as brief as possible because it's quite confusing so feel free to ask if non of it makes sense...it doesn't entirely make sense to me either!
Yesterday completely out of the blue DH received a letter saying he had overpaid tax for the year 2013-14 and would be receiving a cheque with a refund. Don't want to go into exact amounts but its 4 figures.
As you can imagine we got quite excited and mentally spent it all! However I then checked all the paperwork with it and they had his tax code right but a completely random amount for his salary. DH is a relatively high earner (well high for us anyway) but the salary was very low...virtually as low as his tax code if that makes sense?
So he called the helpline and he was asked his tax code and they then said it was a mistake and to just send the cheque back when it arrived. Obviously DH will do this but we are totally confused as to how they arrived at this random figure for his salary. He works for a major company and has never filled in any tax forms or anything...its all done through payroll.
He gets paid his salary, then a company car allowance,annual bonus,travel allowance and he also gets his expenses paid. He pays out his pension from his salary before he receives it.
DH asked them how they got to this figure and they wouldn't tell him. Im all set to just write it off as one of those things but something is niggling me as not quite right but I don't know what.
He wondered if somehow he'd been paying tax on his pension when he shouldn't have been...would that cause them to generate a completely separate "salary"?
There is absolutely zero correlation to what they have got his salary at and what his salary actually is yet the tax code/personal allowance is correct...ie he couldn't have that as his salary if that was his tax code! Surely these things get checked before they are sent out and they must have got this random figure from somewhere.
To complicate matters even further DH works abroad a great deal so is away for the next 10 days and can't actually get in to see Payroll or even really call Inland Revenue.
I realise Im totally clutching at straws but I just wondered if there is anyway it could be correct and we are entitled to it...the man he spoke to literally just asked his tax code and then said it was the same as what he had so it must be a mistake. He didn't ask any further questions as to how his "salary" is broken up.
Any suggestions welcome!