DH and ex had an arrangement whereby he paid the mortgage and she paid the bills. He never put his name on any contracts for utilities etc but I seem to recall that simply by being married he may still be legally jointly liable. DH left the marital home in March 2008 and the divorce was finalised in OCt 2010. Ex hadn't paid British Gas from Aug 2006 to when the property they owned was sold in May 2012, a sum amounting to over £1500. DH was not aware of this and thought all debts she had run up (there were lots) had been settled out of the equity she received from the sale of the property. Debt has now been passed to a debt collector who are pursuing him for the money. They have said they will accept a proportion for the dates that he was actually there. Can anyone advise? Is he liable for any of this debt and can it still be pursued after all of this time (have some vague recollection of a limitation act on timescale involved in pursuing debts where no payments have been made), particularly as he had no knowledge of this debt at all. Any help gratefully received.....