Dh has been made redundant and we're running out of time (and job openings) before he's going to have to sign on.
I've been on entitled to and have noticed several things that say that if he was on income based he could claim. He'll be on contribution based though as hes being working nearly solidly (apart from a few other redundancies...sigh) pretty much all his adult life. Only one of these would effect us though, free school dinners. It says you can claim if you're on income based jsa. Is there a reason you can't claim on contributions based? Apart from this what is the difference and why would we be penalised for him having been working? (all I can find is that there are differences because of how they are devised not how they are applied)
Also is jsa a set amount regardless of marital status? The reason I ask is last time he claimed for a few weeks and we never really got our heads around it but was told afterwards he should have been able to claim (an amount) for me too. Is this right? I won't be claiming as am a sahm and would need something miraculous to happen for me to be able to get a job (like them running buses or the dvla giving me a licence as a freebie) though am not against the idea if an opportunity arose.
TIA