Some years ago, my partner had a joint bank account with his ex-girlfriend, held at Yorkshire Bank. After they split, she made a withdrawal that took the account overdrawn by around £1800. As soon as he found out, he froze the account. She made no attempt to repay the debt until the bank started chasing her. It was within an agreed overdraft limit, but with no money being paid in the debt wasn't going away. He agreed with the bank that his ex would pay £1000 and he would pay the rest, since he wanted the account closed and to protect his credit history, which is excellent.
He paid the £800 approx in two instalments, as agreed with the bank, and his ex paid the £1000 (on her credit card, apparently). Although his credit file on Experian remains clear, the bank have filed a default with Equifax and this is stopping our mortgage application in its tracks. The default amount is £367, which is the second instalment he paid. The bank accept that it has been repaid, and wrote a letter to clarify this to support our mortgage application, but it's not enough, we need them to say that they have made an error as well as getting the credit file corrected. It has taken two weeks since we found out about the error and we are getting nowhere. We've paid a deposit on a new house, my house is sold and we can't get a mortgage at this rate. It's causing an enormous amount of stress.
My partner needs to argue with the bank that the credit file is incorrect and it needs to be shown as clear, not default. Is there a legal definition of default in these circumstances? Is there an agreed procedure the bank should follow before filing the default, eg giving him written warning that a default will occur if he doesn't pay £x by whatever date? If we know that they have not followed the procedure, it will help us get the error corrected.
Thanks in advance.