This may be an incredibly stupid question...

[MamaGeekChic]

... but it has just occured to me and I'm too tired to think rationally right now.

So, I work FT while DP is a SAHD. Every month i earn £X, I keep £Y for bills and £W is left over, I split this in 2 and transfer half to DP's personal account. My question is, because we are not married, could he be liable for some kind of tax on that? It seems a ludicrous idea but i just want to be sure.

TIA

But surely you've already paid tax on it. I wouldn't have thought he'd be liable, but I am no expert.

Good question - I know that everyone has a tax allowance (allowed to receive a certain amount - tax free), but I don't know if your payment would be tax free

That's what i thought (and I have- too much IMHO ) but I wondered if because we weren't married etc it might not be that straight forward.

I'm sleep deprived and most likely over thinking this...

no, he wouldn't be liable for any tax.

theoretically there could be inheritance tax implications - but none that would have any tax impact NOW. But as this is a regular payment out of income, then that would exempt it from those potential future implications.

simple answer - no
Complex answer -no

um yes! If his account is an interest bearing account then he will be taxed however, you would need to be paying a significant amount of money over the course of the year for this to have any real implications.

Make sure the account is either non interest bearing or request a form to ask for the interet to be paid gross, ie with no tax deducted!