Can you sum up the article Framey as it's very long and 'medical'?
What is it trying to prove and where is the conclusion?
I've not had time to read it all, but at first glance, my view is that a) it's 11 years old , b) it's from the US / Canada where research into menopause and treatment differs from the UK and c) it says that 20% of women [in the study or the population?] have peri symptoms - this is a gross underestimation as the figures in the UK are 75-80%.