My ex plays child maintenance (I know I'm lucky getting this reading some other threads on here) and he also pays "spousal maintenance" to help with the mortgage of the family-home which dd and I are in til we sell it and I get somewhere of my own. Now, it's all paid on good faith, ie not through the csa or whatever its called now, and he's not increased either payment in 2 years despite me knowing he would have had 2 annual payrises. When I queried it with him to increase it, he said he that by his calcs he should be paying me a lot less, only £27 a month more than he was paying his first wife about 18 years ago (when they first split) when I know his salary has trebled since then, so I think he's pulling the wool over my eyes.
My question is, for people who get child maintenance and spousal maintenance, if the child maintenance increases, does that automatically mean the spousal maintenance decreases so there is no net increase?
Also, he's paying towards his elder son who is aged 19 and who's at uni. Does this still count as the first payment of child maintenance and his payment towards my daughter is the second payment ie a less percentage?