I wondered whether anyone with any legal training can advise me without me having to go back to my solicitor and incurring further costs.
My ex recently took me to court for access. After the court hearing, there were a couple of points that weren't addressed within the hearing itself regarding holidays.
My barrister emailed my ex's barrister to seek agreement for clauses regarding holidays to be put in the order.
Ex's barrister agreed to put a clause in the order stating 8 weeks notice to be given for holidays and information about location, dates, who will be going on holiday etc.
I've just got a copy of the final order and the wording has been changed slightly but enough to change the implications on what is provided for. The order now states 8 weeks notice for holidays but only 7 days notice to be given regarding destination etc.
This wasn't what I agreed to or what I thought they had agreed to. I don't suspect this is an admin oversight, I suspect this was deliberate.
Is this acceptable practice? Can barristers unilaterally change the terms or should they have referred back to me if they wanted to change the nature of that provision?
This is another issue in a long line of my ex and his barrister playing games, lying and withholding information so whilst it seems trivial, I can't just let it slide without first getting an understanding of whether that's legally acceptable.
Any advice would be appreciated.