I have a court order which states my son lives with me. The court order states that I am allowed to take him out of the country for 28 days without the consent of the other parent. It also states that I must make him available for the court ordered contact during this time.
I don't understand how this can be the case and not completely contradictory. Surely if you take them out of the country and don't need consent, it's implicit that they wont be available for contact. Can someone explain this to me? I'm confused.