Could sombody please settle and arguement my DH and I are having - he has been working in France for 3 months now and swears blind that it is the norm in France that you cannot take any holidays until you have worked in a place a year and so have your holidays saved before you can take it, so you are always using the hoidays from the previous year.
Please tell me this isn't true, I understand if its that he has to earn them first, say 2.5 days a month that you can't take them until you have done that, but surely you don't have to go a whole year without any days off???
I have no knowledge of the french working system but surely this can't be true, I thought one of the big advantages of him working in France would be the big holidays - his contract just states the number of days off he is allowed not when he can taken them.
It just doesn't seem logically or fair to me.
He says that he is "allowed" to take some at christmas in advance of next year but I don't want him to have to go cap in hand every time he wants a holiday this year, surely he is entitled to days off! it just goes against any grain of logic in my head.