Hi there, a namechanger here.
Bit of background: last Christmas (lalala) I split up with my ex-gf because she'd developed feelings for a woman she worked with. They had a brief thing for a couple of months before the other woman went 'cold' on her and the fling fizzled out. We got back together in the summer, but split up again a few weeks ago when ex found out the reason ow had gone cold on her last year and obviously decided she was still in with a chance. Lovely.
Anyway, it turns out that during the time they were having their fling, the ow was supposedly raped, which is why she went cold on ex. To be honest I have very little sympathy (and I'm not even sure if it's true because it seems ow is a bit of a nutjob anyway). But assuming it DID happen, and ex did sleep with her very soon afterwards how likely is it that ex would've picked something up and passed it to me?
I don't know the details of the alledged rape but I assume it would be a man. I understand that generally the more serious STDs can't be passed through lesbian sex, but I basically want to know:
a) How likely it would be that there was still semen present in ow when she and ex had sex in the days after the rape?
b) Is it possible to pass STDs through blood/fluid contact, or genital-to-genital contact between two women? (Aside from the obvious warts and thrush, which I'd be aware of).
c) If yes to either of the above, which STDs would we be talking about?
If it would be a waste of time for me to get tested I'd rather not go through the stress and worry, but if there is a chance I'd like to know.