Anyone able to advise where we stand legally with the following dilema.
We moved into a brand new house 8 yrs ago - a small development of houses. All the houses have water meters, we have been paying our bill via direct debit for 8 yrs. Have always thought that our bill was very low, lower than my parents' bill; two of them in the house compaired to 4 of us.
Have just found out that the bill we have ben paying is not for our meter, we are paying one of our neighbours bills and they must be paying ours - we don't know which neighbour though as 7 to choose from.
Would the water company or our neighbour be able to claim back from us - we have clearly been underpaying for 8 yrs?