Can anyone tell me categorically (ie can a lawyer answer this) - does a former spouse remarrying mean he cannot apply for financial settlement?
For context, head has been buried in sand for well over a decade. Divorce, no clean break order. Had less than nothing during the marriage and nothing any time soon after. No CSA paid, no nothing. Had no pensions, had nothing at all during the marriage (either party, other than he had a small military pension). This is why I didn’t pursue one, there seemed no need. Short marriage - 2.5 years.
In the many years since, money has accumulated at my end. No idea about his end. Haven’t wanted to alert him to the possibility by applying for one (multiple affairs, morals of an alley cat, would not put it past him to try to claim anything he could despite it being morally bankrupt to do so).
Head has been in the sand, until I read something which states remarriage actually ends the ability to bring a claim against future wealth. It appears from what I’ve read to be true and if so I’ve worried for years about nothing.
Can anyone who is actually a lawyer confirm if this is the case?