Hi all, for transparency I have worded this through chat gpt as it’s all very technical , I’m a terrible speller and I wanted it all worded correctly . No offence intended .
I’m hoping for some advice as I have a redundancy consultation coming up and I’m unsure where I stand.
I started work at 16 and I’m now 46, so I have 30 years’ continuous service. The business I originally worked for was later taken over, and I transferred across and continued in the same role (same job, same work), so TUPE should have applied.
I believe my original contract stated redundancy would be one month’s pay per year of service. I don’t currently have a copy of that contract (it’s from when I was 16), but over the years my long service has consistently been recognised . I’ve received a 30-year service award and extra holiday entitlement linked to length of service.
I don’t recall ever knowingly agreeing to a change to my redundancy terms, although I appreciate it’s possible I may have signed paperwork over the years without realising the implications. I’m now being told about statutory redundancy + notice, but I haven’t yet been given anything in writing.
My questions are:
the business was taken over and TUPE applied, would an enhanced redundancy term like one month per year normally transfer unless lawfully changed? my long service has continued to be recognised (bonus, extra holiday), does that help evidence that legacy terms may still apply? my employer can’t produce my old contract, where does that leave me? if I did sign something years ago without understanding it, does that automatically cancel old redundancy rights?
I’m not trying to be awkward … I just want to understand what’s reasonable before I agree to anything.
Any insight or similar experiences would be really appreciated. Thank you.