My Mum is buying a second home to be rented out. The money for the purchase is held in savings. She’s 81, and has built up the savings over her life and those that she inherited when my Dad died 26 years ago, as well as the sale of the family home 15 years ago. Whilst I understand that the solicitor must prove source of funds in line with money laundering legislation, we have been asked to prove that part of Mum’s wealth is due to inheritance 25 years ago. Is this right? And how could it be proved?