PropertyManagementCompanyQuery ·
07/11/2025 14:36
Hi, recent name change to not tie back to my usual username as I'm posting on behalf of a friend who is not on MN, looking for advice on a current situation.
My friend lives in a share of freehold flat, and has relatively recently become co- director of the freeholder's management company. One of the flats in the block is rented out. It looks likely recently it may be being used as a HMO. It is a 3 bedroom flat and it looks like the lounge is being used as a 4th bedroom.
The directors have been looking into this as some of the owner-occupied residents have raised concerns. The head lease on the flats states "not to use or occupy nor permit the flat to be used or occupied for any purpose whatsoever other than as a private residence in the occupation of a single family."
The owner of the property is elderly and her DS is the registered contact. He does not respond to any correspondence. The flat is rented out by a local independent Lettings Agency. They have a very poor reputation locally. My friend has contacted the owner of the company unsuccessfully and has spoken to the Lettings Manager. The Lettings Manager was not particularly interested.
The tenants' tenancy agreement is not with the landlord. It is with a Property Management Company, which it turns out is owned by the Lettings Manager of the company the landlord rents it out through. So, he works for the company the landlord rents it out through and then his company sublet it as individual rooms. This is in clear breach of the terms of the head lease.
So there are two questions really. Firstly, what is the definition of a "family" in this context, and if the Property Management Company are in breach of the terms of the head lease what can the directors do? Secondly, is there a conflict of interest in the Lettings Manager's company renting the property through the Lettings Agency he works for?
Any advice gratefully received!