X and I got divorced and had a mesher order in place until kids finished school. The house is about to be sold now three years post-divorce. The house is in X's name only, so when sold, the money would go to X and then I'd be paid from that. That's what we thought anyway. The court order was signed and sealed at the time of divorce, splitting the funds from the house between us.
Now I'm ready to buy a house from the proceeds of the sale. For AML and source of funds purposes, my conveyancer has asked for a letter from X's solicitor saying that they will issue £xxxxx to me from the sale of the house. But X's solicitor is saying that that's beyond their remit, they will just send X the funds as "there is no notice on the title regarding this payment".
I guess I can still show my source of funds (letter/bank statement from X and then evidence of that coming to me), but is it a problem that we intend to do the money transfer as a private transaction? Our divorce lawyer has moved on to another company and I don't know about involving her if we can do this ourselves for free.