Please could someone offer advice very simply put? I don't know what I'm talking about so apologies if my terminology is incorrect.
If ownership of land/property is transferred and it has a property that is social housing on it, what needs to happen to allow that house to become an assured tenancy? Is there anything legal that should happen during transfer to stop it being social housing, or is it always social housing? It would be empty on date of transfer.
Thank you x